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Advice needed, please...

pindy40
Member since 23-8-2008

I was contacted by email to ask me to do a maternity cover until Easter. Since the supply pay rate would therefore be at the top of the scale, I agreed. I then covered five days of a maternity cover timetable for one teacher at this school before personal circumstances meant that I had to stop teaching. I have now had my pay for the five days I did in Jan/Feb and I have been paid at the £70 rate. Is this correct or can I query this? (To bepedantic, the first week I taught four days out of the five because of a previous appointment and the second week I told them on Monday that I could not continue because of a change in my persoanl circumstances.) I am grateful for any advice.

Posted 29-3-2012 12:56

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Imsdal
Member since 8-11-2007

I think that it is supposed to be that if THE POST you are covering is expected to last longer than 5 days ANY supply teacher covering part of it (even if the cover is for less than 5 days) would be paid at the higher rate. This was to stop schools getting long-term supply on the cheap by getting in a different teacher each day.

I do wonder though whether that really happens and didn't get a chance to ask the supply teachers we had covering odd days of a two week absence.

Posted 29-3-2012 19:49

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pindy40
Member since 23-8-2008

Really? This sounds very promising. Thanks so much for taking the time to reply.

Posted 29-3-2012 21:04

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Si N. Tiffick
Member since 26-10-2006

I'd imagine that since you only worked 4 days for them you would be paid at the lower rate.

Posted 30-3-2012 10:01

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pindy40
Member since 23-8-2008

I managed to speak to a business manager today. I actually taught six days in total: Mon/Tue/Thurs/Fri one week and Mon/Tue of the next week. Although it was a long-term maternity cover, he said that I was paid at the lower rate because the five days were not continuous. Is this correct? ( Apologies for previous wrong info: I wasn't given a timesheet and it was almost two months ago...)

Posted 30-3-2012 21:11

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betsyb1
Member since 11-1-2010

I am sure the days don't have to be continuous. If it was known from the outset that the cover was required for more than 5 days you should have been paid at the full rate. I would maybe check with your union.

Posted 30-3-2012 21:43

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leesey
Member since 11-4-2006

betsyb1
I am sure the days don't have to be continuous. If it was known from the outset that the cover was required for more than 5 days you should have been paid at the full rate. I would maybe check with your union.

This is the correct information. Even if you worked one day a week for 5 weeks, if you had known from the start this was the case then you are paid the higher rate. If you worked 5 one-off or intermittent days that you didn't know the duration of, you'd be paid the lower rate.

Posted 31-3-2012 16:29

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pindy40
Member since 23-8-2008

I am very grateful for your help with this. Thanks!

Posted 31-3-2012 17:59

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pindy40
Member since 23-8-2008

I was able to relay the information kindly supplied by various people to the business manager today. He conceded that my six days should have been paid at the full rate. Result! Thanks to everyone who replied to my question.

Posted 2-4-2012 19:58

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